FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz 5
Question
Question 1
Which nodes are also called Virchow nodes?
a. Internal mammary
b. Anterior axillary
c. Deep cervical
d. Supraclavicular
Question 2
To palpate the inguinal nodes, you should have the patient:
a. bend over a table and cough
b. lie supine, with the knees slightly flexed
c. lie supine, with the legs extended
d. stand with the back extended
Question 3
Which risk factor is least likely to result in someone contracting HIV infection?
a. Prostitution
b. Hemophilia
c. Intravenous drug use
d. Working with AIDS patients
Question 4
Which of the following organs does not have lymphatic vessels?
a. Brain
b. Kidneys
c. Liver
d. Lungs
Question 5
Which disorder is characterized by a single node that is chronically enlarged and nontender in a patient with no other symptoms?
a. Retropharyngeal abscess
b. Streptococcal pharyngitis
c. Mononucleosis
d. Toxoplasmosis
Question 6
Transillumination is performed during an examination of the lymphatic system to:
a. detect lymphatic pulsation
b. distinguish nodes from cysts
c. evaluate nodal contours
d. observe erythematous lesions
Question 7
Serum sickness is usually characterized first by the appearance of:
a. diffuse lymph node enlargement
b. joint pain
c. urticaria
d. fever
Question 8
The most important clue to the diagnosis of immunodeficiency disease in a child is:
a. family history
b. illness in siblings
c. previous hospitalizations
d. serious recurring infections
Question 9
Which of the following conditions will stimulate lymph node enlargement? (Select all that apply.)
a. Graves diseaseb
b. Lymphangiomac
c. Esophageal refluxd
d. Parotid swelling
Question 10
The nurse tells her patient with lymphadenopathy not to rub the swollen lymph node because this would result in:
a. spreading the infection
b. enlarging the node
c. slowing the lymphatic drainage
d. making the node more fibrotic
Question 11
The harder and more discrete a node, the more likely that there is a(n):
a. innocent cause
b. infection
c. malignancy
d. metabolic disease
Question 12
Tender nodes associated with cat scratch disease are usually found in which area?
a. Epitrochlear area
b. Popliteal area
c. Axilla
d. Inguinal area
Question 13
To find the infection site associated with acute lymphangitis, the examiner should look ________ to the inflammation.
a. proximal
b. distal
c. contralateral
d. anterior
Question 14
Which landmark is the dividing line between the anterior and posterior cervical triangles?
a. Clavicle
b. Cervical spine
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Sternum
Question 15
Which disorder is a dysfunction of cell-mediated immunity?
a. Acute idiopathic polyneuritis
b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
c. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) mononucleosis
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Question 16
When examining lymph nodes near a joint in the arm or leg, which of the following maneuvers is likely to facilitate the examination?
a. Extension of the extremity
b. Circumduction of the extremity
c. Flexion of the extremity
d. Rotation of the extremity
Question 17
The most common causes of acute suppurative lymphadenitis are:
a. HIV and herpes zoster
b. Haemophilus influenzae and adenovirus
c. herpes simplex types 1 and 2
d. streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms
Question 18
What is the most frequent cause of edema of the lower extremities?
a. Deficiency of vitamins and minerals
b. Excessive walking or running
c. Prolonged sitting or standing
d. Use of table salt
Question 19
Which of the following findings indicates that the examiner is assessing a blood vessel rather than a lymph node?
a. A bruit
b. Inflammation
c. Tenderness
d. Redness
Question 20
Which nodes are most often associated with inflammation?
a. Shotty
b. Movable
c. Fixed
d. Tender
Question 21
Which bronchial structure(s) is(are) most susceptible to aspiration of foreign bodies?
a. Left mainstem bronchus
b. Terminal bronchioles
c. Right mainstem bronchus
d. Respiratory bronchioles
Question 22
While auscultating the lung fields, you note that the patient’s voice sound is intensified, the voice has a nasal quality, and e’s sound like a’s. This describes:
a. resonance
b. bronchophony
c. pectoriloquy
d. egophony
Question 23
You are documenting a rash between the eighth and ninth ribs on the lateral border.This intercostal space will be documented in terms of the:
a. rib immediately above it
b. rib immediately below it
c. number of centimeters it is positioned below the clavicle
d. number of inches it is positioned below the clavicle
Question 24
Which chest structure contains all the thoracic viscera except the lungs?
a. Manubrium
b. Mediastinum
c. Sternum
d. Xiphoid
Question 25
Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by:
a. percussing all lung fields
b. auscultating the lung bases
c. determining tactile fremitus
d.estimating diaphragmatic excursion
Question 26
When the umbilical cord is cut:
a. blood flows through the infants lungs more vigorously.
b. lungs fill with air
c. closure of the foramen ovale occurs
d. closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs
Question 27
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of atelectasis?
a. Diminished chest wall movement
b. Tachypnea
c. Bradypnea
d. Trachea deviated ipsilaterally
Question 28
Which type of apnea requires immediate action?
a. Primary apnea
b. Secondary apnea
c. Sleep apnea
d. Periodic apnea of the newborn
Question 29
To distinguish between a respiratory friction rub and cardiac friction rub, ask the patient to:
a. hold the breath
b. lean forward
c. say “99” while you palpate the anterior chest
d. identify the location of the pain
Question 30
When auscultating the apex of the lung, you should listen at a point:
a. even with the second rib
b. 4 cm above the first rib
c. higher on the right side
d. on the convex diaphragm surface
Question 31
Your trauma patient has no auscultated breath sounds in the right lung field. You can hear adequate sounds on the left side. A likely cause of this abnormality could be that the patient:
a. has a closed head injury
b. has fluid in the pleural space
c. is moaning and in severe pain
d. is receiving high-flow oxygen
Question 32
Which condition requires immediate emergency intervention?
a. Patient with pleuritic pain without dyspnea
b. Patient with fever and a productive cough
c. Patient with tachypnea but no chest retractions
d. Patient with absent breath sounds and dull percussion tones
Question 33
Which site of chest wall retractions indicates a more severe obstruction in the asthmatic patient?
a. Lower chest
b. Along the anterior axillary line
c. Above the clavicles
d. At the nipple line
Question 34
With consolidation in the lung tissue, the breath sounds are louder and easier to hear, whereas healthy lung tissue produces softer sounds. This is because:
a. consolidation echoes in the chest
b. consolidation is a poor conductor of sound
c. air-filled lung sounds are from smaller spaces
d. air-filled lung tissue is an insulator of sound
Question 35
Which term would you use to document a respiratory rate more than 20 breaths/min in an adult?
a. Dyspnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Platypnea
d. Tachypnea
Question 36
Which finding suggests a minor structural variation?
a. Barrel chest
b. Clubbed fingers
c. Pectus carinatum
d. Chest wall retractions
Question 37
Which symptom is the most significant indicator of asthma and should be identified in the health history?
a. Wheezing
b. Paroxysmal dyspnea
c. Coexistent skin conditions
d. Chest pain
Question 38
To distinguish crackles from rhonchi, you should auscultate the lungs:
a. before and after the patient coughs
b. first at the lung base and then at the apex
c. with the patient inhaling and then exhaling
d. with the patient recumbent and then sitting
Question 39
Which of the following is an expected finding in newborns?
a. Mottling of the thorax
b. Sternal retractions
c. Cough
d. Sneezing
Question 40
You would expect to document the presence of a pleural friction rub for a patient being treated for:
a. pneumonia
b. atelectasis
c. pleurisy
d. emphysema
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