Physiological Psychology.
Physiological Psychology.
PSY 540
Physiological Psychology
Text: Physiology of Behavior
Tenth Edition, 2010
ISBN-I0: 0205666272, ISBN-13: 9780205666270
Authors: Neil R. Carlson
Publisher: Allyn & Bacon Physiological Psychology.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. The ability of Natalie J.’S grandfather to touch the end of a cane held by his doctor after
becoming blind after a stroke _
a. was made possible because his color visual system was intact
b. was possible because his corpus callosum was intact
c. was made possible because his primitive visual system was intact
d. is due to chance
e. occurred because the stroke did not involve the right hemisphere
2. Blindsight suggests that some parts of the brain may playa special role in _
a. tactile sensation
b. eye movements
c. sleep-wake cycles
d. reproductive behavior
e. consciousness
3. Which of the following is true of blindsight?
a. The primitive visual system is key for consciousness.
b. Reaching is only guided by the conscious visual system.
c. People are acutely aware of their blindspots.
d. Humans appear to have dual visual systems.
e. The right hemipshere is important for language function.
4. Transection of the may be useful for reducing the symptoms of _
a. corpus callosum; epilepsy
b. visual system; blindsight
c. stria terminalis; amnesia
d. parietal cortex; unilateral neglect
e. corpus callosum; anxiety
5. Epilepsy can be controlled by _
a. damaging portions of the parietal cortex
b. damaging portions of the pineal gland
c. drugs that stimulate the firing of neurons
d. electrical stimulation of certain brain regions
e. cutting the corpus callosum Physiological Psychology.
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6. Which of the following neurological conditions involve the excessive firing of nerve cells in the brain?
a. Hemorrhagic stroke
b. Hydrocephalus
c. Hematoma
d. Epilepsy
e. Myasthen ia gravis
7. A person whose corpus callosum has been sectioned would be expected to show which of the following? Physiological Psychology.
a. I ncreased frequency of epi leptic seizures.
b. Coordinated control of his right and left hands.
c. Reading an interesting book held in his right hand.
d. Making obscene gestures with his left hand.
e. None of the above are correct.
8. An important function of the corpus callosum is to _
a. channel sensory information to the thalamic relay centers
b. control the movement of the hands and feet
c. interconnect the cerebral hemispheres
d. modulate the release of neurohormones from the pituitary
e. dampen neural firing in the cortex
9. Surgical sectioning of the corpus callosum is intended to _
a. reduce swelling of the brain in hydroencephalus patients
b. minimize long-term memories of traumatic events
c. promote the development of the memory systems
d. reduce the severity of epileptic seizures
e. None of the above are correct.
10. In most persons, a key function of the left hemisphere _
a. is to control the left side of the body
b. is the control of language
c. relates to spatial perception
d. is to integrate the tactile information from the left side of the body
e. is to receive olfactory information from the right nostri I
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1l. Imagine that your corpus callosum has been sectioned to minimize your epileptic seizures. Physiological Psychology.
Suppose that your left nostril is plugged with cotton and that a fresh rose has been placed
near your right nostril. Under these conditions, the rose would _
a. generate a sensory message in your left hemisphere
b. generate a sensory message in both hemispheres
c. lead you to report the smell of a flower Physiological Psychology.
d. not generate a verbal report of this experience
e. A and C are correct.
12. A key function of the right hemisphere relates to the _
a. motor control of the left side of the body
b. processing of olfactory signals from the left nostri I
c. processing of tactile signals from the right side of the body
d. motor control of the right side of the body
e. capacity to control feeding, tigtrting, fleeing, and mating
13. Imagine that your corpus callosum has been sectioned to minimize your epileptic seizures.
Suppose that your left nostril is plugged with cotton and that a fresh rose has been placed
near your right nostril. Under these conditions, you would be most likely to _
a. experience a sensory message r your left hemisphere
b. use your right hand to choose a hidden plastic flower
c. report that you smell a flower
d. use your left hand to select a hidden plastic flower
e. use your right hand to select a pine tree
14. Unilateral neglect involves .
a. the inability to notice objects placed to the right side of a person
b. damage to the left hemisphere of the brain
c. the inability to notice objects placed to the left side of a person
d. damage to the amygdala and hippocampus
e. impaired speech production Physiological Psychology.
15. A person who sustains damage within her right parietal cortex would be expected
to _
a. show impaired perception of tactile stimuli on the left side of the body
b. experience altered emotional expression
c. be better at planning motor actions involving her hands
d. experience unilateral neglect
e. experience impaired speech production
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16. A person suffering from unilateral neglect would be unable to _
a. attend to the right half of a stimulus
b. state whether the right half of a stimulus is the same as the left half of the stimulus
c. accurately label the hours of a clock drawing Physiological Psychology.
d. recognize both hands as their own
e. describe parts of a well known landmark
17. The author of the first psychology text was and the text was entitled
a. Rene Descartes; A Primer of Psychology
b. Sigmund Freud; Dream Interpretation After Cocaine Ingestion
c. Neil Carlson; Foundations of Physiological Psychology
d. Luigi Galvani; Frog Legs and Psychologic Function
e. Wilhelm Wundt; Principles of Physiological Psychology
18. Your textbook author asserts that the primary function of the brain is to _
a. allow us to appreciate art and music
b. allow for the experience of emotions
c. control movement
d. create memories of our experiences
e. interpret our sensory experiences
19.
______ represent explanations used by all scientists.
a. Generalizations
b. Inductions
c. Isolations
d. Syllogisms
e. Rationalizations
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20. Imagine that you now experience such an overly strong fear of dogs that you refuse to leave your house for fear of encountering a dog. A learning theorist would suggest that the roots of your fear can be attributed to classical conditioning in which you associated the sight and sound of a dog with some aversive experience. This type of explanation would Physiological Psychology.
involve the process of _
a. rationalization
b. pseudoscience
c. reductionism
d. generalization
e. dualism
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21. A scientific explanation of a complex phenomenon that is cast in terms of a simpler one
involves the process of _
a. rational ization
b. falsification
c. generalization
d. deduction
e. reduction
22. You notice that your roommate has difficu Ity sleeping after consum i ng heavi Iy caffei nated drinks. You know from your courses that caffeine can stimulate brain neurons that produce arousal (and that such arousal disturbs sleep function). If you suggest to your roommate that his/ner insomnia reflects the action of caffeine on brain function, your
explanation would involve the process of _
a. reduction
b. superordinate causality
c. generalization
d. induction
e. None of the above are correct.
23. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
a. Reduction uses simple processes to explain complicated ones.
b. The goal of science is to understand a phenomenon under study.
c. Generalization and reduction are important tools in science.
d. Scientists only use reductionistic explanations.
e. Most scientific studies use non-human experimental subjects.
24. Ancient Greek culture before Hippocrates considered the to be the seat of
thought and emotion.
a. gut
b. heart
c. brain
d. pineal gland
e. stomach
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25. The philosopher attrbuted thought and emotion to the brain, whereas
_____ considered the function of the brain as important for cooling the heart.
a. Aristotle; Hippocrates
b. Galen; Aristotle
c. Hippocrates; Aristotle Physiological Psychology.
d. Plato; Galen
e. Hippocrates; Plato
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Written Assignment for Unit One
• I ncl ude your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the I nternet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course Syllabus for more detai Is on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1 J;:””,mino tho UI;O of :>nimals in rcccorch and thc ethical iocucc associated vvith suctt use.
Make an argument a) FOR and b) AGAINST their use.
2. Analyze why the termination step of the neural communication process is a key target for therapeutic drugs.
3. Compare and contrast the anatomy and function of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. A lesion technique that is selective for cell bodies involves _
a. aspiration of tissue using a pipette
b. overstimulation of glutamate receptors by kainic acid
c. the flow of alternating current at the tip of an electrode
d. the flow of electrical current through an electrode
e. A and C are correct.
2. A key advantage of lesions is that they affect only neural cell bodies and do not
damage axons passing through the region.
a. hypoxic
b. aspiration
c. 6-hydroxydopamine
d. radio-frequency
e. excitotoxic
3. Molecular biologists have tagged toxins to specific that in turn will kill specific
types of neurons. Physiological Psychology.
a. antigens
b. receptors
c. kainic acid
d. antibodies
e. autoreceptors
4. A(n) allows an experimenter to determine whether a lesion in a rat brain
produced a specific behavioral effect.
a. sham-lesion control group
b. pseudo-control group
c. aspiration device
d. cool i ng electrode
e. Band C are correct.
5. The key advantage of a reversible lesion is that _
a. axons of passage are not affected by reversible procedures
b. each animal can serve as its own control
c. cell bodies are not affected by reversible procedures
d. such lesions affect brain tissue near the tip of the lesion device
e. kainic acid is inexpensive
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6.
_____ is a common landmark or reference point used for stereotaxic surgery.
a. The fornix
b. The optic chiasma
c. Bregma
d. The parasagittal sutures
e. The zero poi nt
III
7. A temporary disruption of neural activity within a region of the brain can be produced
a. using a knife to cut brain tissue
b. using an injection of muscimol into the brain region
c. by local heating of the brain using radiofrequency waves
d. by injection of kainic acid
e. by stimulation of bregma
8. The surgical instrument used to implant an electrode or cannula into the brain is termed
a _
a. stereotaxic apparatus
b. electroencephalogram
c. cryoloop
d. macroelectrode
e. magnetrode
9. The three numbers listed on a page of a stereotaxic atlas describe _
a. anterior-posterior, dorsal-ventral, and medal-lateral coordinates
b. drill bit diameter, length, and approximate size of lesion
c. the settings on a stereotaxic apparatus for mice versus rats
d. the strain, age, and weight of an animal
e. C and D are correct.
10. Successive pages of a stereotaxic atlas refer to _
a. various distances relative to the bottom of the brain
b. the distance from the top of the skull
c. various distances relative to bregma
d. various distances relative to the midline
e. All of the above are correct.
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11. Wh ich of the followi ng is true of stereotaxic surgery?
a. A stereotaxic instrument usually requires coordinates from a brain atlas.
b. The carrier arm can be manipulated in three dimensions.
c. The head holder is designed to fix the skull in a rigid position.
d. The stereotaxic instrument is useful for implanting electrodes or cannulae into brain.
e. All of the above are correct.
12.
______ is considered to be a histological method.
a. Fixing the brain
b. Visual examination of a stained section
c. Cutting the brain
d. Staining the brain
e. All of the above are correct.
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13. refers to a histological procedure in which blood is drained and replaced by
another fluid, such as a salt solution.
a. Microdialysis
b. Perfusion
c. Fixation
d. Staining
e. Desanguination
14. Formalin is useful in the histology laboratory because it _
a. introduces microorganisms that help decompose the brain after death
b. halts the enzyme process that breaks down brain tissue after death
c. quickly removes the blood from the brain
d. softens the brai n tissue
e. All of the above are correct.
15. The instrument is used to slice the brain into thin pieces for later
examination.
a. microtome
b. stereotaxic
c. cryocoil
d. microiontophoretic
e. microscopy
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16. Of the following, does not belong with the other four terms.
a. electrical stimulation of the bra n
b. visual examination of a stained section
c. cutting the brain
d. staining the brain
e. fixing the brain
17. The RNA, DNA, and associated proteins in cell bodies are collectively referred to
as _
a. cytoplasm
b. amino acids
c. Nissl substance
d. gangliosides
e. nucleotides
18. A is a thin slice of bra n used in histology.
a. cell fragment
b. brai n cut
c. section
d. horizontal view
e. tissue segment
19. The fine details of neuron structure in a brain slice or section are revealed by Physiological Psychology.
a. albumin fixation
b. stains
c. immersion in xylene
d. cyanoacrylate glue
e. visual examination of raw brain slices using MRI
20. Of the structures in the following list, cresyl violet stains most intensely.
a. dendrites
b. axons
c. synapses
d. cell bodies
e. terminal boutons
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21. Which of the following structures can be visualized with the light microscope?
a. Nucleus
b. Synaptic vesicles
c. Neurotransmitter receptors
d. Microtubules
e. M icrofi laments
22. Which of the following techniques can reveal the three-dimensional detail of the cells within a brain section?
a. Transmission electron microscopy
b. Staining produced by methylene blue
c. Scanning electron microscopy
d. An anterograde labeling methoo
e. Computational tomography
23. Which of the following is true of confocal laser scanning microscopy?
a. This technique is limited to a magnification of XIOO.
b. The confocal laser scanning microscope uses an electron beam to scan a thin slice of
tissue.
c. The procedure can be used to visualize living brain cells.
d. This technique can only be used for tissue subjected to formalin.
e. A and D are correct.
24. Which of the following is NOT true of the anterograde labeling procedure?
a. A target molecule is injected into a collection of neurons.
b. The target molecule is transported from the axon terminals back to the soma and
dendrites.
c. The target molecule is taken up by the dendrites of cells in the injection zone.
d. Eventually most regions of the cell are filled with the target molecule.
e. An immunocytochemical method is used to visualize the cells in a section that contain the target molecules.
25. The technique would be used to trace efferent axons from a brain region.
a. retrograde labeling method
b. staining produced by methylene blue
c. scanning electron microscopy
d. anterograde labeling method
e. computerized tomography
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Written Assignment for Unit Two
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle paragraphs and concl usion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. lOut written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the I nternet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarisrn and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
l. Analyze how the activity of brain cells is measured using autoradiography.
2. Examine the concept of a receptive field in the visual system and provide an example of this concept for a ganglion cell within the cat retina.
3. Evaluate the transduction process for gustatory signals.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
l. An example of an activational effect induced by the hormone estradiol would
be _
a. growth of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle
b. growth of axillary hair in females
c. differentiation of the Wolffian system into the fimbriae, Fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina
d. maturation of the ovaries in a female
e. alteration of the vocal cords to create a “deep” voice
2. The key distinction between an organizational hormone effect and an activational
hormone effect is that _
a. activational effects are permanent
b. organizational effects are permanent
c. organizational effects only occur during adulthood
d. activational effects are mediated by receptors, whereas organizational effects are due to temporary changes in neurotransmitter secretion
e. organizational effects only occur in the brain
3. The Mullerian system structures are the precursors to the _
a. male internal sex organs
b. ovaries
c. female internal sex organs
d. testes
e. penis and scrotum
4. Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
a. Wolffian system; Seminal vesicles
b. Mullerian system; Fallopian tubes
c. Mullerian system; Uterus
d. Wolffian system; Uterus
e. All of the above are correct.
5. The structures of the Wolffian system are the precursors to the _
a. male internal sex organs
b. ovaries
c. female internal sex organs
d. testes
e. penis and scrotum
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6. The prenatal development of the internal reproductive structures of the male requires
a. suppression of the Mullerian system by anti-Mullerian hormone
b. secretion of estradiol by the pituitary
c. secretion of progesterone
d. secretion of androgens
e. A and D are correct.
7. The prenatal development of the internal reproductive structures of the female _
a. requires the suppression of the MUllerian system by anti-MUllerian hormone
b. requires secretion of estradiol by the pituitary
c. is caused by secretion of progesterone
d. requires no hormone
e. A and D are correct.
8. The hormone exerts a defeminizing action during prenatal development.
a. testosterone
b. dihydrotestosterone
c. estradiol
d. androgen
e. anti-M U Ilerian hormone
9. A hormone that prevents the prenatal development of the Mullerian system is said to have
atn) _
a. defeminizing effect
b. activational effect
c. masculinizing effect
d. feminizing effect
e. nonselective action on the undifferentiated gonads
10. A hormone that promotes the prenatal development of the Wolffian system is said to have
a(n) _
a. defem i n izi ng effect
b. activational effect
c. masculinizing effect
d. feminizing effect
e. nonselective action on the und fferentiated gonads
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11. A person who suffers from androgen-insensitivity syndrome would be expected
to _
a. show female external genitalia
b. have testes
c. secrete androgens
d. lack male internal reproductive structures
e. All of the above are correct.
12. A person suffering from untreated androgen-insensitivity syndrome would exhibit all of
the following EXCEPT _
a. breast growth at puberty
b. testes
c. female external genitals
d. female internal genitals
e. the inability to have children
l3. In which disorder would the external genitals of a female develop in conjunction with testes?
a. Adrenogenital syndrome
b. Turner’s syndrome
c. Sry syndrome
d. Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome
e. Androgen-insensitivity syndrome
14. The enzyme converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone.
a. tyrosine hydroxylase
b. 5-alpha reductase
c. seminal hydroxylase
d. 3,4 galactase
e. tryptophan hydroxylase
15. In one might expect to observe both male and female internal reproductive
structures.
a. Adrenogenital Syndrome
b. Turner’s Syndrome
c. Sry Syndrome
d. Persistent Mullerian Duct Syndrome in a genetic male
e. Androgen I nsensitivity Syndrome
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16. The key principle demonstrated by Ti.rner’s Syndrome is that _
a. male fetuses produce Mullerian-inhibiting substances
b. female secondary sexual characteristics appear without the ovaries
c. ovaries are necessary for development of the Mullerian system
d. different hormones are requirec to develop or to suppress the development of the male reproductive organs
e. ovaries are NOT necessary for development of the M (j Ilerian system
17. Which of the following is true of cases of Turner’s syndrome?
a. They develop female external sex organs.
b. They have no gonads.
c. They have an XO genotype.
d. They have one X chromosome.
e. All of the above are correct.
18. A genetic male has a hormone receptor deficiency that resulted in this person having a penis and both sets of internal sex organs. The most likely explanation for this case is that
the person might _
a. lack the Y chromosome
b. have undergone plastic surgery
c. have Persistent Mullerian Duct Syndrome
d. testes that oversecreted anti-Mullerian hormone
e. Turner’s Syndrome
19. The prenatal development of the external male genitalia requires the presence of
a. alpha-fetoprotein
b. melatonin
c. estrad iol
d. dihydrotestosterone
e. anti-Mullerian hormone
20. All of the following are examples of a secondary sex characteristic EXCEPT _
a. breast development
b. a deep voice
c. widened hips
d. beard growth
e. formation of a pen is
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21. Which of the following pairs represent an example of a primary sex characteristic and an example of a secondary sex characteristic?
a. Penis; Beard growth
b. Enlarged breasts; Wide hips
c. Testes development; Ovaries
d. Clitoris; Ovaries
e. Deep voice; Beard growth
22. The key event that starts sexual maturation at the onset of puberty is that _
a. the ovaries and testes release gonadotropic hormones
b. estradiol and testosterone are released from the hypothalamus
c. the pituitary secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormones
d. LH and FSH are released from the hypothalamus
e. the adrenals release adrenaline
23. Which of the following is known to speed up the onset of female puberty?
a. Forced exercise and dieting
b. Low levels of body fat
c. High plasma levels of leptin
d. Malnutrition
e. Consumption of a low-energy diet
24. An effect of androgens would be the
a. promotion of muscle development
b. growth of pubic hair
c. lowering of the voice
d. beard growth
e. All of the above are correct.
25. All of the following are an effect of androgen EXCEPT _
a. growth of the beard
b. changes in deposition of body fat
c. lowering of the voice
d. the promotion of muscle development
e. altering the hairline of the head
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. In the Knecht et al. (2000) study of handedness and hemispheric speech lateralization, the
measure used to determine hemispheric dominance was _
a. changes in cerebral blood flow
b. accumulation of radioactive 2-DG in cortical neurons
c. PET scans of brain activity
d. fMRI scans of brain activity
e. EEG stud ies of brai n activity
2. With regard to handedness and hemispheric speech dominance, _
a. over 90 percent of the population shows right-hemisphere dominance for speech
b. left-hemisphere speech dominance is noted in 50 percent of right-handed people
c. left-hemisphere speech dominance is noted in 50 percent of ambidextrous people
d. over 90 percent of the population shows left-hemisphere dominance for speech
e. right hemisphere speech dominance does not occur in left-handed people
3. Verbal behavior is said to be a lateralized function of the left hemisphere in that
a. electrical stimulation of the left hemisphere has less effect on language than does similar stimulation of the right hemisphere
b. language problems are more likely to be noted after damage to the left rather than the right hemisphere
c. right-handed persons are more likely to have their language center located within the right hemisphere
d. most language problems are noted after damage to the right rather than the left hemisphere
e. the right hemisphere is most active during our verbal behaviors
4. The left hemisphere is better than the right hemisphere at _
a. perceiving spatial relationships
b. analysis of events and objects that occur at the same time
c. recognizing the emotional tone of a voice
d. analyzing sequences of stimuli
e. All of the above are correct.
5. The right hemisphere is better than the left hemisphere at _
a. recognizing the emotional tone in a voice
b. analysis of events and objects that occur at the same time
c. perceiving spatial relationships
d. analyzing sequences of stimuli
e. All but D are correct.
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11. The primary difficulty noted in Broca’s aphasia involves _
a. understanding speech
b. spelling simple words
c. saying content words
d. producing speech
e. recognizing the emotional content of speech
12.
______ are examples of function words, while are examples of
content words.
a. “Some,” “the” / “apple,” “fail”
b. “Throw,” “heave” / “some,” “the”
c. “Apple,” “fail” / “some,” “the”
d. “Person,” “difficult” / “a,” “in”
e. “Some,” lithe” / “a,” “in”
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13. A person with Broca’s aphasia would have the most difficulty in _
a. spelling content words
b. saying function words
c. understanding speech
d. recognizing complex geometrical forms
e. saying content words
14. A word is important for grammar, where words convey
meaning.
a, morpheme; function
b. function; content
c. content; phonological
d. content; function
e. phonological; function
15. The notion that aphasia involves structures other than Broca’s area comes from studies in
which _
a. damage to the corpus callosum produces aphasia
b. CAT scans show decreased blood flow in structures located in the right posterior cortex when subjects read words aloud
c. damage to the head of the caudate nucleus can produce a Broca-like aphasia
d. CAT scans show increased blood flow in structures located in the right posterior cortex when subjects read words aloud
e. Band D are correct.
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16. The speech disorder of the KE family has been linked to _
a. a single gene on chromosome 7
b. the use of recreational drugs such as cocaine
c. a single gene on chromosome 23
d. abnormal neural development of the posterior association cortex
e. abnormal neural development of the right frontal cortex
17. A person with Broca’s aphasia wou Id be expected to _
a. show great difficulty in articulating words
b. easily articulate words like “cigarette”
c. show fluent articulate speech
d. be unable to answer yes or no cuestions about object functions
e. easily name objects
18. Broca’s aphasia involves the speech ceficit(s) of _
a. agrammatism
b. articulation difficulties
c. difficulty in spelling
d. anomia
e. All but C are correct.
19. A person with Broca’s aphasia would be expected to _
a. pronounce words correctly, but slowly
b. be blissfully unaware of his or her speech difficulties
c. produce fluent, but meaningless speech
d. experience difficulty in speech comprehension based on word order
e. have sustained damage to the right frontal lobe
20. A difficulty in the use of word order, use of function words, and selection of appropriate
word endings is termed _
a. apraxia
b. anosmia
c. agrammatism
d. articulation disorder
e. anomia
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2l. The speech deficit of _
a. agrammatism
b. articulation difficulties
c. dysgraphia
d. anomia
e. All but C are correct.
is a common feature of all forms of aphasia.
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22. The speech deficit known as anomia involves _
a. a difficulty in choosing the right word for a sentence
b. the primary symptom of Broca’s, but not Wernicke’s aphasia
c. poor word comprehension
d. a difficulty in the pronunciation of words in a sentence
e. an impairment in the spelling of words
23. The Dronkers (1996) study suggests that difficulty of speech articu lation involves damage
to the _
a. postcentral insular cortex
b. right precentral gyrus of the ins ila
c. right posterior association cortex
d. left precentral gyrus of the insu a
e. anterior temporal lobe
24. Damage to the left precentral gyrus of the insula would be expected to result in
a. impairment in the spelling of fu iction words
b. apraxia of speech
c. an inability to use prosody to communicate emotion to others
d. problems in understanding abstract speech
e. problems in aski ng for help of another
25. Imaging studies indicate that word pronunciation induces activation of the _
a. right anterior insula
b. periaqueductal gray
c. left anterior insula
d. reticu lar formation
e. dorsal pons
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Written Assignment for Unit Four
• I ncl ude your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1. Compare and contrast the symptoms noted in Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia.
2. Examine the current treatments for Parkinson’s disease (PD).
3. Evaluate the monoamine hypothesis of depression and suggest evidence that supports this hypothesis.
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craiktulving1975.pdf
toichi2002.pdf
turk2008.pdf
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